Why is quixotic not Quixotic (a proper adjective)?Why is “biblical” the only proper adjective to not use...

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Why is quixotic not Quixotic (a proper adjective)?


Why is “biblical” the only proper adjective to not use upper case?Adjective with proper nounYoga (proper-case) or yoga (lowercase)?Why is “biblical” the only proper adjective to not use upper case?Adjective of proper noun containing “and”Connotations of “quixotic”Proper adjective for “used” ticketCapitalization of plural noun given proper adjective and common adjectiveWhy isn't “Secretary of State” (a proper noun) being capitalized?Would “communists” be considered a proper noun?Proper name as an adjective













5















Adjectives derived from proper nouns are known as proper adjectives, and are capitalized:



A piece of writing could be Shakespearean, not shakespearean.
A person may be Canadian, not canadian.



Even Chrome's spellchecker sees these as correct and incorrect.



However, quixotic is written in lower case, despite coming from the name of the character Don Quixote. Similarly, draconian laws are named for Draco, a particularly brutal senator from ancient Athens.



Does anyone know the reasoning behind some proper adjectives not being capitalized in common usage?










share|improve this question




















  • 1





    interesting question!

    – only_pro
    5 hours ago











  • @only_pro - thank you. I came across this while writing up a post for a linguistic-oriented Facebook group I recently created. Was scheduling some words of the day, writing up quixotic, and realized it looked weird capitalized. Did some poking around and realized that there's no discernible rhyme or reason to which do and which do not get capitalized. Made the back of my brain tickle.

    – Jesse Williams
    5 hours ago






  • 1





    Because English!

    – Hot Licks
    3 hours ago






  • 1





    Related: Why is “biblical” the only proper adjective to not use upper case?.

    – Davo
    2 hours ago
















5















Adjectives derived from proper nouns are known as proper adjectives, and are capitalized:



A piece of writing could be Shakespearean, not shakespearean.
A person may be Canadian, not canadian.



Even Chrome's spellchecker sees these as correct and incorrect.



However, quixotic is written in lower case, despite coming from the name of the character Don Quixote. Similarly, draconian laws are named for Draco, a particularly brutal senator from ancient Athens.



Does anyone know the reasoning behind some proper adjectives not being capitalized in common usage?










share|improve this question




















  • 1





    interesting question!

    – only_pro
    5 hours ago











  • @only_pro - thank you. I came across this while writing up a post for a linguistic-oriented Facebook group I recently created. Was scheduling some words of the day, writing up quixotic, and realized it looked weird capitalized. Did some poking around and realized that there's no discernible rhyme or reason to which do and which do not get capitalized. Made the back of my brain tickle.

    – Jesse Williams
    5 hours ago






  • 1





    Because English!

    – Hot Licks
    3 hours ago






  • 1





    Related: Why is “biblical” the only proper adjective to not use upper case?.

    – Davo
    2 hours ago














5












5








5


1






Adjectives derived from proper nouns are known as proper adjectives, and are capitalized:



A piece of writing could be Shakespearean, not shakespearean.
A person may be Canadian, not canadian.



Even Chrome's spellchecker sees these as correct and incorrect.



However, quixotic is written in lower case, despite coming from the name of the character Don Quixote. Similarly, draconian laws are named for Draco, a particularly brutal senator from ancient Athens.



Does anyone know the reasoning behind some proper adjectives not being capitalized in common usage?










share|improve this question
















Adjectives derived from proper nouns are known as proper adjectives, and are capitalized:



A piece of writing could be Shakespearean, not shakespearean.
A person may be Canadian, not canadian.



Even Chrome's spellchecker sees these as correct and incorrect.



However, quixotic is written in lower case, despite coming from the name of the character Don Quixote. Similarly, draconian laws are named for Draco, a particularly brutal senator from ancient Athens.



Does anyone know the reasoning behind some proper adjectives not being capitalized in common usage?







adjectives capitalization proper-nouns






share|improve this question















share|improve this question













share|improve this question




share|improve this question








edited 3 hours ago









sumelic

48.9k8116220




48.9k8116220










asked 5 hours ago









Jesse WilliamsJesse Williams

93149




93149








  • 1





    interesting question!

    – only_pro
    5 hours ago











  • @only_pro - thank you. I came across this while writing up a post for a linguistic-oriented Facebook group I recently created. Was scheduling some words of the day, writing up quixotic, and realized it looked weird capitalized. Did some poking around and realized that there's no discernible rhyme or reason to which do and which do not get capitalized. Made the back of my brain tickle.

    – Jesse Williams
    5 hours ago






  • 1





    Because English!

    – Hot Licks
    3 hours ago






  • 1





    Related: Why is “biblical” the only proper adjective to not use upper case?.

    – Davo
    2 hours ago














  • 1





    interesting question!

    – only_pro
    5 hours ago











  • @only_pro - thank you. I came across this while writing up a post for a linguistic-oriented Facebook group I recently created. Was scheduling some words of the day, writing up quixotic, and realized it looked weird capitalized. Did some poking around and realized that there's no discernible rhyme or reason to which do and which do not get capitalized. Made the back of my brain tickle.

    – Jesse Williams
    5 hours ago






  • 1





    Because English!

    – Hot Licks
    3 hours ago






  • 1





    Related: Why is “biblical” the only proper adjective to not use upper case?.

    – Davo
    2 hours ago








1




1





interesting question!

– only_pro
5 hours ago





interesting question!

– only_pro
5 hours ago













@only_pro - thank you. I came across this while writing up a post for a linguistic-oriented Facebook group I recently created. Was scheduling some words of the day, writing up quixotic, and realized it looked weird capitalized. Did some poking around and realized that there's no discernible rhyme or reason to which do and which do not get capitalized. Made the back of my brain tickle.

– Jesse Williams
5 hours ago





@only_pro - thank you. I came across this while writing up a post for a linguistic-oriented Facebook group I recently created. Was scheduling some words of the day, writing up quixotic, and realized it looked weird capitalized. Did some poking around and realized that there's no discernible rhyme or reason to which do and which do not get capitalized. Made the back of my brain tickle.

– Jesse Williams
5 hours ago




1




1





Because English!

– Hot Licks
3 hours ago





Because English!

– Hot Licks
3 hours ago




1




1





Related: Why is “biblical” the only proper adjective to not use upper case?.

– Davo
2 hours ago





Related: Why is “biblical” the only proper adjective to not use upper case?.

– Davo
2 hours ago










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















4














As you correctly say, technically words associated with a proper noun should be capitalized.



However as time and usage goes on, these words tend to become words in their own right, not associated any more with the person they are named after.



So 'Shakespearean' means 'associated with or like Shakespeare'. It has no meaning apart from the association with the person.



On the other hand 'quixotic' is defined as "foolishly impractical especially in the pursuit of ideals. especially : marked by rash lofty romantic ideas or extravagantly chivalrous action". The definition makes no reference to Quixote, and people can (and do) use the word without knowing who Don Quixote is. This is even more true with 'draconian', which I had no idea was related to a person. Over time the adjective morphs from directly referring to the person etc, to indicating characteristics that were once associated with that person but are now considered independently.



So the answer is that the word loses its initial cap when it stops being associated with the person (or thing) it was originally associated with.






share|improve this answer


























  • that's an interesting observation, and I would agree, but then what of biblical, which is ostensibly 'associated with the Bible', but still not commonly capitalized. Interestingly, I actually do capitalize Biblical, as rarely as I write the word. I'm fairly certain that I generally capitalize Draconian as well. But Quixotic just sort of felt wrong. It's a fickle thing, English...

    – Jesse Williams
    5 hours ago






  • 2





    +1 for confirming that I’m not the only one who had no idea draconian was related to a person – I just thought it was a direct reference to ‘dragon-like’!

    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    4 hours ago






  • 1





    William Blake wrote 'dark Satanic mills' in 'Jerusalem', in 1804, but by 2012 the word 'satanic' was sufficiently disconnected from the evil one for the Guardian to lowercase it when discussing the poem.

    – Michael Harvey
    4 hours ago






  • 2





    A minor point is that "quixotic" is not given a Spanish pronunciation.

    – Hot Licks
    3 hours ago











  • This is a nice idea, but I doubt it's correct. Take a look at the question Davo linked to in a comment on the question. There are a good number of proper adjectives that are commonly not capitalized and it's not clear to me that Faustian has any more connection to Faust than herculean has to Hercules, or that balkanization is less associated with the Balkans than Americanization is with America.

    – Juhasz
    1 hour ago



















1














In a comment posted years ago to the question Why is "biblical" the only proper adjective to not use upper case? I listed some other exceptions to the general rule that the first letter of an adjective derived from a proper name is normally capitalized. Only the letters q, w, and x faild to yield an example:




arabesque, byzantine, caesarean, draconian, epicurean, faradic, galvanic, herculean, italic, jesuitical, kabbalistic, lilliputian, mercurial, nazi, oedipal, pyrrhic, rubenesque, spartan, terpsichorean, utopian, voltaic, and zephyrous




Why do these exceptions occur? The not-very-satisfactory answer seems to be that common usage determines whether an adjective based on a proper name is initial-capped or lowercased. Dictionaries provide their spelling preferences based on what amount to the found objects of preponderant real-world usage in each case; and thenceforth, real-world usage (to the extent that it is influenced by people who look things up in dictionaries) tends to reflect the dictionary treatment. The very circularity of the process makes it extremely difficult to determine where and when the critical decision regarding initial cap versus all lowercase got made.



I don't see how else to explain why Oedipal is commonly initial-capped when it refers to the mythical character Oedipus (as in "Oedipal resistance to fate") but commonly lowercased when it refers to Freud's Oedipus complex (as in "oedipal feelings"), even though the complex is explicitly named after Oedipus.



Bryan Garner, Garner's Modern American Usage, second edition (2003) concludes that trying to make sense of exceptions to the normal rules about what gets capitalized and what doesn't is a fool's game:




There is simply no way to reason out why Stone Age is capitalized but space age is usually not, why October is capitalized but autumn is not, why in scientific names the genus is capitalized but the species is not—even when the species name is derived from a proper name {Rhinolophus philippinensis}.




Ultimately, capitalization conventions rest on strong general tendencies tempered by exceptions that are neither consistent nor explicable.






share|improve this answer
























  • Oddly, I can recall, in my school days, being instructed that "Autumn" is capitalized, though "fall", "winter", "spring", and "summer" are not.

    – Hot Licks
    7 mins ago











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2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes








2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









4














As you correctly say, technically words associated with a proper noun should be capitalized.



However as time and usage goes on, these words tend to become words in their own right, not associated any more with the person they are named after.



So 'Shakespearean' means 'associated with or like Shakespeare'. It has no meaning apart from the association with the person.



On the other hand 'quixotic' is defined as "foolishly impractical especially in the pursuit of ideals. especially : marked by rash lofty romantic ideas or extravagantly chivalrous action". The definition makes no reference to Quixote, and people can (and do) use the word without knowing who Don Quixote is. This is even more true with 'draconian', which I had no idea was related to a person. Over time the adjective morphs from directly referring to the person etc, to indicating characteristics that were once associated with that person but are now considered independently.



So the answer is that the word loses its initial cap when it stops being associated with the person (or thing) it was originally associated with.






share|improve this answer


























  • that's an interesting observation, and I would agree, but then what of biblical, which is ostensibly 'associated with the Bible', but still not commonly capitalized. Interestingly, I actually do capitalize Biblical, as rarely as I write the word. I'm fairly certain that I generally capitalize Draconian as well. But Quixotic just sort of felt wrong. It's a fickle thing, English...

    – Jesse Williams
    5 hours ago






  • 2





    +1 for confirming that I’m not the only one who had no idea draconian was related to a person – I just thought it was a direct reference to ‘dragon-like’!

    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    4 hours ago






  • 1





    William Blake wrote 'dark Satanic mills' in 'Jerusalem', in 1804, but by 2012 the word 'satanic' was sufficiently disconnected from the evil one for the Guardian to lowercase it when discussing the poem.

    – Michael Harvey
    4 hours ago






  • 2





    A minor point is that "quixotic" is not given a Spanish pronunciation.

    – Hot Licks
    3 hours ago











  • This is a nice idea, but I doubt it's correct. Take a look at the question Davo linked to in a comment on the question. There are a good number of proper adjectives that are commonly not capitalized and it's not clear to me that Faustian has any more connection to Faust than herculean has to Hercules, or that balkanization is less associated with the Balkans than Americanization is with America.

    – Juhasz
    1 hour ago
















4














As you correctly say, technically words associated with a proper noun should be capitalized.



However as time and usage goes on, these words tend to become words in their own right, not associated any more with the person they are named after.



So 'Shakespearean' means 'associated with or like Shakespeare'. It has no meaning apart from the association with the person.



On the other hand 'quixotic' is defined as "foolishly impractical especially in the pursuit of ideals. especially : marked by rash lofty romantic ideas or extravagantly chivalrous action". The definition makes no reference to Quixote, and people can (and do) use the word without knowing who Don Quixote is. This is even more true with 'draconian', which I had no idea was related to a person. Over time the adjective morphs from directly referring to the person etc, to indicating characteristics that were once associated with that person but are now considered independently.



So the answer is that the word loses its initial cap when it stops being associated with the person (or thing) it was originally associated with.






share|improve this answer


























  • that's an interesting observation, and I would agree, but then what of biblical, which is ostensibly 'associated with the Bible', but still not commonly capitalized. Interestingly, I actually do capitalize Biblical, as rarely as I write the word. I'm fairly certain that I generally capitalize Draconian as well. But Quixotic just sort of felt wrong. It's a fickle thing, English...

    – Jesse Williams
    5 hours ago






  • 2





    +1 for confirming that I’m not the only one who had no idea draconian was related to a person – I just thought it was a direct reference to ‘dragon-like’!

    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    4 hours ago






  • 1





    William Blake wrote 'dark Satanic mills' in 'Jerusalem', in 1804, but by 2012 the word 'satanic' was sufficiently disconnected from the evil one for the Guardian to lowercase it when discussing the poem.

    – Michael Harvey
    4 hours ago






  • 2





    A minor point is that "quixotic" is not given a Spanish pronunciation.

    – Hot Licks
    3 hours ago











  • This is a nice idea, but I doubt it's correct. Take a look at the question Davo linked to in a comment on the question. There are a good number of proper adjectives that are commonly not capitalized and it's not clear to me that Faustian has any more connection to Faust than herculean has to Hercules, or that balkanization is less associated with the Balkans than Americanization is with America.

    – Juhasz
    1 hour ago














4












4








4







As you correctly say, technically words associated with a proper noun should be capitalized.



However as time and usage goes on, these words tend to become words in their own right, not associated any more with the person they are named after.



So 'Shakespearean' means 'associated with or like Shakespeare'. It has no meaning apart from the association with the person.



On the other hand 'quixotic' is defined as "foolishly impractical especially in the pursuit of ideals. especially : marked by rash lofty romantic ideas or extravagantly chivalrous action". The definition makes no reference to Quixote, and people can (and do) use the word without knowing who Don Quixote is. This is even more true with 'draconian', which I had no idea was related to a person. Over time the adjective morphs from directly referring to the person etc, to indicating characteristics that were once associated with that person but are now considered independently.



So the answer is that the word loses its initial cap when it stops being associated with the person (or thing) it was originally associated with.






share|improve this answer















As you correctly say, technically words associated with a proper noun should be capitalized.



However as time and usage goes on, these words tend to become words in their own right, not associated any more with the person they are named after.



So 'Shakespearean' means 'associated with or like Shakespeare'. It has no meaning apart from the association with the person.



On the other hand 'quixotic' is defined as "foolishly impractical especially in the pursuit of ideals. especially : marked by rash lofty romantic ideas or extravagantly chivalrous action". The definition makes no reference to Quixote, and people can (and do) use the word without knowing who Don Quixote is. This is even more true with 'draconian', which I had no idea was related to a person. Over time the adjective morphs from directly referring to the person etc, to indicating characteristics that were once associated with that person but are now considered independently.



So the answer is that the word loses its initial cap when it stops being associated with the person (or thing) it was originally associated with.







share|improve this answer














share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer








edited 1 hour ago

























answered 5 hours ago









DJClayworthDJClayworth

10.8k12334




10.8k12334













  • that's an interesting observation, and I would agree, but then what of biblical, which is ostensibly 'associated with the Bible', but still not commonly capitalized. Interestingly, I actually do capitalize Biblical, as rarely as I write the word. I'm fairly certain that I generally capitalize Draconian as well. But Quixotic just sort of felt wrong. It's a fickle thing, English...

    – Jesse Williams
    5 hours ago






  • 2





    +1 for confirming that I’m not the only one who had no idea draconian was related to a person – I just thought it was a direct reference to ‘dragon-like’!

    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    4 hours ago






  • 1





    William Blake wrote 'dark Satanic mills' in 'Jerusalem', in 1804, but by 2012 the word 'satanic' was sufficiently disconnected from the evil one for the Guardian to lowercase it when discussing the poem.

    – Michael Harvey
    4 hours ago






  • 2





    A minor point is that "quixotic" is not given a Spanish pronunciation.

    – Hot Licks
    3 hours ago











  • This is a nice idea, but I doubt it's correct. Take a look at the question Davo linked to in a comment on the question. There are a good number of proper adjectives that are commonly not capitalized and it's not clear to me that Faustian has any more connection to Faust than herculean has to Hercules, or that balkanization is less associated with the Balkans than Americanization is with America.

    – Juhasz
    1 hour ago



















  • that's an interesting observation, and I would agree, but then what of biblical, which is ostensibly 'associated with the Bible', but still not commonly capitalized. Interestingly, I actually do capitalize Biblical, as rarely as I write the word. I'm fairly certain that I generally capitalize Draconian as well. But Quixotic just sort of felt wrong. It's a fickle thing, English...

    – Jesse Williams
    5 hours ago






  • 2





    +1 for confirming that I’m not the only one who had no idea draconian was related to a person – I just thought it was a direct reference to ‘dragon-like’!

    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    4 hours ago






  • 1





    William Blake wrote 'dark Satanic mills' in 'Jerusalem', in 1804, but by 2012 the word 'satanic' was sufficiently disconnected from the evil one for the Guardian to lowercase it when discussing the poem.

    – Michael Harvey
    4 hours ago






  • 2





    A minor point is that "quixotic" is not given a Spanish pronunciation.

    – Hot Licks
    3 hours ago











  • This is a nice idea, but I doubt it's correct. Take a look at the question Davo linked to in a comment on the question. There are a good number of proper adjectives that are commonly not capitalized and it's not clear to me that Faustian has any more connection to Faust than herculean has to Hercules, or that balkanization is less associated with the Balkans than Americanization is with America.

    – Juhasz
    1 hour ago

















that's an interesting observation, and I would agree, but then what of biblical, which is ostensibly 'associated with the Bible', but still not commonly capitalized. Interestingly, I actually do capitalize Biblical, as rarely as I write the word. I'm fairly certain that I generally capitalize Draconian as well. But Quixotic just sort of felt wrong. It's a fickle thing, English...

– Jesse Williams
5 hours ago





that's an interesting observation, and I would agree, but then what of biblical, which is ostensibly 'associated with the Bible', but still not commonly capitalized. Interestingly, I actually do capitalize Biblical, as rarely as I write the word. I'm fairly certain that I generally capitalize Draconian as well. But Quixotic just sort of felt wrong. It's a fickle thing, English...

– Jesse Williams
5 hours ago




2




2





+1 for confirming that I’m not the only one who had no idea draconian was related to a person – I just thought it was a direct reference to ‘dragon-like’!

– Janus Bahs Jacquet
4 hours ago





+1 for confirming that I’m not the only one who had no idea draconian was related to a person – I just thought it was a direct reference to ‘dragon-like’!

– Janus Bahs Jacquet
4 hours ago




1




1





William Blake wrote 'dark Satanic mills' in 'Jerusalem', in 1804, but by 2012 the word 'satanic' was sufficiently disconnected from the evil one for the Guardian to lowercase it when discussing the poem.

– Michael Harvey
4 hours ago





William Blake wrote 'dark Satanic mills' in 'Jerusalem', in 1804, but by 2012 the word 'satanic' was sufficiently disconnected from the evil one for the Guardian to lowercase it when discussing the poem.

– Michael Harvey
4 hours ago




2




2





A minor point is that "quixotic" is not given a Spanish pronunciation.

– Hot Licks
3 hours ago





A minor point is that "quixotic" is not given a Spanish pronunciation.

– Hot Licks
3 hours ago













This is a nice idea, but I doubt it's correct. Take a look at the question Davo linked to in a comment on the question. There are a good number of proper adjectives that are commonly not capitalized and it's not clear to me that Faustian has any more connection to Faust than herculean has to Hercules, or that balkanization is less associated with the Balkans than Americanization is with America.

– Juhasz
1 hour ago





This is a nice idea, but I doubt it's correct. Take a look at the question Davo linked to in a comment on the question. There are a good number of proper adjectives that are commonly not capitalized and it's not clear to me that Faustian has any more connection to Faust than herculean has to Hercules, or that balkanization is less associated with the Balkans than Americanization is with America.

– Juhasz
1 hour ago













1














In a comment posted years ago to the question Why is "biblical" the only proper adjective to not use upper case? I listed some other exceptions to the general rule that the first letter of an adjective derived from a proper name is normally capitalized. Only the letters q, w, and x faild to yield an example:




arabesque, byzantine, caesarean, draconian, epicurean, faradic, galvanic, herculean, italic, jesuitical, kabbalistic, lilliputian, mercurial, nazi, oedipal, pyrrhic, rubenesque, spartan, terpsichorean, utopian, voltaic, and zephyrous




Why do these exceptions occur? The not-very-satisfactory answer seems to be that common usage determines whether an adjective based on a proper name is initial-capped or lowercased. Dictionaries provide their spelling preferences based on what amount to the found objects of preponderant real-world usage in each case; and thenceforth, real-world usage (to the extent that it is influenced by people who look things up in dictionaries) tends to reflect the dictionary treatment. The very circularity of the process makes it extremely difficult to determine where and when the critical decision regarding initial cap versus all lowercase got made.



I don't see how else to explain why Oedipal is commonly initial-capped when it refers to the mythical character Oedipus (as in "Oedipal resistance to fate") but commonly lowercased when it refers to Freud's Oedipus complex (as in "oedipal feelings"), even though the complex is explicitly named after Oedipus.



Bryan Garner, Garner's Modern American Usage, second edition (2003) concludes that trying to make sense of exceptions to the normal rules about what gets capitalized and what doesn't is a fool's game:




There is simply no way to reason out why Stone Age is capitalized but space age is usually not, why October is capitalized but autumn is not, why in scientific names the genus is capitalized but the species is not—even when the species name is derived from a proper name {Rhinolophus philippinensis}.




Ultimately, capitalization conventions rest on strong general tendencies tempered by exceptions that are neither consistent nor explicable.






share|improve this answer
























  • Oddly, I can recall, in my school days, being instructed that "Autumn" is capitalized, though "fall", "winter", "spring", and "summer" are not.

    – Hot Licks
    7 mins ago
















1














In a comment posted years ago to the question Why is "biblical" the only proper adjective to not use upper case? I listed some other exceptions to the general rule that the first letter of an adjective derived from a proper name is normally capitalized. Only the letters q, w, and x faild to yield an example:




arabesque, byzantine, caesarean, draconian, epicurean, faradic, galvanic, herculean, italic, jesuitical, kabbalistic, lilliputian, mercurial, nazi, oedipal, pyrrhic, rubenesque, spartan, terpsichorean, utopian, voltaic, and zephyrous




Why do these exceptions occur? The not-very-satisfactory answer seems to be that common usage determines whether an adjective based on a proper name is initial-capped or lowercased. Dictionaries provide their spelling preferences based on what amount to the found objects of preponderant real-world usage in each case; and thenceforth, real-world usage (to the extent that it is influenced by people who look things up in dictionaries) tends to reflect the dictionary treatment. The very circularity of the process makes it extremely difficult to determine where and when the critical decision regarding initial cap versus all lowercase got made.



I don't see how else to explain why Oedipal is commonly initial-capped when it refers to the mythical character Oedipus (as in "Oedipal resistance to fate") but commonly lowercased when it refers to Freud's Oedipus complex (as in "oedipal feelings"), even though the complex is explicitly named after Oedipus.



Bryan Garner, Garner's Modern American Usage, second edition (2003) concludes that trying to make sense of exceptions to the normal rules about what gets capitalized and what doesn't is a fool's game:




There is simply no way to reason out why Stone Age is capitalized but space age is usually not, why October is capitalized but autumn is not, why in scientific names the genus is capitalized but the species is not—even when the species name is derived from a proper name {Rhinolophus philippinensis}.




Ultimately, capitalization conventions rest on strong general tendencies tempered by exceptions that are neither consistent nor explicable.






share|improve this answer
























  • Oddly, I can recall, in my school days, being instructed that "Autumn" is capitalized, though "fall", "winter", "spring", and "summer" are not.

    – Hot Licks
    7 mins ago














1












1








1







In a comment posted years ago to the question Why is "biblical" the only proper adjective to not use upper case? I listed some other exceptions to the general rule that the first letter of an adjective derived from a proper name is normally capitalized. Only the letters q, w, and x faild to yield an example:




arabesque, byzantine, caesarean, draconian, epicurean, faradic, galvanic, herculean, italic, jesuitical, kabbalistic, lilliputian, mercurial, nazi, oedipal, pyrrhic, rubenesque, spartan, terpsichorean, utopian, voltaic, and zephyrous




Why do these exceptions occur? The not-very-satisfactory answer seems to be that common usage determines whether an adjective based on a proper name is initial-capped or lowercased. Dictionaries provide their spelling preferences based on what amount to the found objects of preponderant real-world usage in each case; and thenceforth, real-world usage (to the extent that it is influenced by people who look things up in dictionaries) tends to reflect the dictionary treatment. The very circularity of the process makes it extremely difficult to determine where and when the critical decision regarding initial cap versus all lowercase got made.



I don't see how else to explain why Oedipal is commonly initial-capped when it refers to the mythical character Oedipus (as in "Oedipal resistance to fate") but commonly lowercased when it refers to Freud's Oedipus complex (as in "oedipal feelings"), even though the complex is explicitly named after Oedipus.



Bryan Garner, Garner's Modern American Usage, second edition (2003) concludes that trying to make sense of exceptions to the normal rules about what gets capitalized and what doesn't is a fool's game:




There is simply no way to reason out why Stone Age is capitalized but space age is usually not, why October is capitalized but autumn is not, why in scientific names the genus is capitalized but the species is not—even when the species name is derived from a proper name {Rhinolophus philippinensis}.




Ultimately, capitalization conventions rest on strong general tendencies tempered by exceptions that are neither consistent nor explicable.






share|improve this answer













In a comment posted years ago to the question Why is "biblical" the only proper adjective to not use upper case? I listed some other exceptions to the general rule that the first letter of an adjective derived from a proper name is normally capitalized. Only the letters q, w, and x faild to yield an example:




arabesque, byzantine, caesarean, draconian, epicurean, faradic, galvanic, herculean, italic, jesuitical, kabbalistic, lilliputian, mercurial, nazi, oedipal, pyrrhic, rubenesque, spartan, terpsichorean, utopian, voltaic, and zephyrous




Why do these exceptions occur? The not-very-satisfactory answer seems to be that common usage determines whether an adjective based on a proper name is initial-capped or lowercased. Dictionaries provide their spelling preferences based on what amount to the found objects of preponderant real-world usage in each case; and thenceforth, real-world usage (to the extent that it is influenced by people who look things up in dictionaries) tends to reflect the dictionary treatment. The very circularity of the process makes it extremely difficult to determine where and when the critical decision regarding initial cap versus all lowercase got made.



I don't see how else to explain why Oedipal is commonly initial-capped when it refers to the mythical character Oedipus (as in "Oedipal resistance to fate") but commonly lowercased when it refers to Freud's Oedipus complex (as in "oedipal feelings"), even though the complex is explicitly named after Oedipus.



Bryan Garner, Garner's Modern American Usage, second edition (2003) concludes that trying to make sense of exceptions to the normal rules about what gets capitalized and what doesn't is a fool's game:




There is simply no way to reason out why Stone Age is capitalized but space age is usually not, why October is capitalized but autumn is not, why in scientific names the genus is capitalized but the species is not—even when the species name is derived from a proper name {Rhinolophus philippinensis}.




Ultimately, capitalization conventions rest on strong general tendencies tempered by exceptions that are neither consistent nor explicable.







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answered 26 mins ago









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  • Oddly, I can recall, in my school days, being instructed that "Autumn" is capitalized, though "fall", "winter", "spring", and "summer" are not.

    – Hot Licks
    7 mins ago



















  • Oddly, I can recall, in my school days, being instructed that "Autumn" is capitalized, though "fall", "winter", "spring", and "summer" are not.

    – Hot Licks
    7 mins ago

















Oddly, I can recall, in my school days, being instructed that "Autumn" is capitalized, though "fall", "winter", "spring", and "summer" are not.

– Hot Licks
7 mins ago





Oddly, I can recall, in my school days, being instructed that "Autumn" is capitalized, though "fall", "winter", "spring", and "summer" are not.

– Hot Licks
7 mins ago


















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